Because Christianity is bigger than Biblical manhood or Biblical womanhood (Blog of Retha Faurie)

Myth: “You could simply read “I am not allowing a woman to teach or have authority over a man” on face value.”

The much-debated, hard-to-translate 1 Tim 2:11-15 raises more questions than it answers.

> Is “I am not allowing” Paul’s personal opinion, or should a command of God be read behind it?

> To those who know Greek tenses, it seems to be better understood as a temporary statement, not a permanent one like the English face value reader may assume. But then, for what time period is “I am not allowing” meant?

> Do “a woman” and “a man” refer to a particular woman and man Paul knew, or to everyone? (The answer sounds obvious from your English language assumptions, but what you believe may not be true in Greek. And Paul wrote this in koine Greek.)

> What does the word, used only once in the Bible, translated as “have authority” really mean? Seduction/ having authority/ doing violence to/ usurping authority not yours/ and claiming you made something  have all been suggested as possible meanings.

:15 proves that the passage simply cannot be taken on face value: Women are not saved, in the usual Bible sense of the word, by childbearing. That is simply anti-gospel.


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